Series 79 practice questionmediumCapital Structure in M&A
In advising a client considering an acquisition funded 100% by debt, which of the following should an investment banker most highlight?
- AThe potential for increased financial risk and reduced flexibility✓ Correct answer
- BThe guaranteed reduction in the company’s WACC
- CThe automatic improvement of the target’s equity value
- DThe elimination of any future need for equity financing
Explanation
Why A — The potential for increased financial risk and reduced flexibility
High debt financing increases financial risk and reduces flexibility. WACC may not always decrease, target equity value is not guaranteed to improve, and future equity needs may still arise.
Turn it into reps
Reading one answer is not the same as being ready
Lucky the Banker is a free practice app with 995+ Series 79 questions, weak-area tracking, and timed mock exams. No credit card, no paywall.
Spot an error in this question or explanation? Tell us — we fix these fast.
Related Collection, Analysis & Evaluation of Data questions
- Under FINRA Rule 5110, which of the following must an investment banker consider when advising a public company on a…
- A company is considering issuing additional debt. Which of the following is the most likely risk associated with this…
- Which of the following is a risk of a capital structure with a large proportion of short-term debt relative to…
- If a company issues $100 million of bonds at a yield of 6%, and the corporate tax rate is 25%, what is the company’s…
- If the corporate tax rate increases, what is the expected impact on the WACC, assuming the capital structure is…
- A company’s EBITDA is $30 million and annual interest expense is $6 million. What is its interest coverage ratio?
- A company decides to recapitalize by issuing $50 million in new debt and using the proceeds to repurchase stock. What…
- Which of the following best describes the impact of convertible debt on a company’s capital structure?
