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Debt Securities: 237 free SIE practice questions

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  1. When interest rates rise, what generally happens to existing bond prices?easy
  2. A tombstone advertisement for a new securities offering is permitted during the cooling-off period and typically includes all of the…easy
  3. Who regulates the municipal securities market and establishes rules for municipal securities dealers?easy
  4. Which best describes the federal tax status of interest earned on most municipal bonds?hard
  5. Which organization writes rules for firms and professionals involved in municipal securities activities?medium
  6. What is a primary benefit of investing in municipal bonds?easy
  7. What is a key difference between Treasury bills (T-bills) and Treasury bonds (T-bonds)?medium
  8. Interest on municipal bonds is typically exempt from which tax?medium
  9. Municipal bonds may be unsuitable for which type of investor?hard
  10. Which U.S. Treasury security is issued at a discount and does not pay periodic interest?medium
  11. A municipal securities firm violates MSRB rules. Which agency enforces disciplinary actions?hard
  12. An investor looking for income exempt from federal income tax should consider which type of security?easy
  13. Which U.S. Treasury security is issued at a discount and matures in one year or less?easy
  14. Treasury Inflation-Protected Securities (TIPS) offer which of the following benefits?medium
  15. Interest earned on most municipal bonds is typically exempt from which tax?medium
  16. The Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board (MSRB) is primarily responsible for regulating:medium
  17. A high-income client wants tax-free income and is comfortable with some credit risk. Which would be MOST suitable?hard
  18. If an MSRB rule is violated by a broker-dealer, who has the power to enforce disciplinary action?hard
  19. A customer is considering investing in municipal bonds for tax-advantaged income. Which statement about municipal bonds is accurate?medium
  20. A customer wants to invest in a U.S. Treasury security with a 10-year maturity and semiannual interest payments. Which should they buy?medium
  21. Which of the following is TRUE about U.S. Treasury bills (T-bills)?easy
  22. What distinguishes Treasury notes from Treasury bonds?easy
  23. Which of the following U.S. government agency securities is backed by the full faith and credit of the U.S. government?medium
  24. What is the primary purpose of creating tranches in a Collateralized Mortgage Obligation (CMO)?hard
  25. A debenture is a type of corporate bond that is:easy
  26. A convertible bond has a par value of $1,000 and a conversion price of $50. What is the conversion ratio?medium
  27. A general obligation (GO) municipal bond is backed by:easy
  28. Interest income from municipal bonds is generally:easy
  29. Which of the following is an example of a revenue bond?medium
  30. When market interest rates rise, the price of an existing fixed-rate bond will:easy
  31. A bond with a par value of $1,000 has an annual coupon rate of 6% and is currently trading at $900. What is the current yield?medium
  32. Rank the following yields from lowest to highest for a bond trading at a premium: nominal yield, current yield, yield to maturity (YTM).hard
  33. Which of the following bond ratings is considered investment grade?easy
  34. Which statement about callable bonds is TRUE?medium
  35. An investor purchases a zero-coupon bond. Which of the following is TRUE?medium
  36. Which bond would be MOST sensitive to changes in interest rates?hard
  37. An investor in the 32% federal tax bracket is considering a municipal bond yielding 4%. What is the taxable equivalent yield?hard
  38. In the event of corporate bankruptcy, subordinated debentures are paid:medium
  39. Interest on U.S. Treasury securities is:easy
  40. An equipment trust certificate is a type of corporate bond that is:medium
  41. Municipal bond insurance provides which primary benefit?medium
  42. When a corporate bond is sold between interest payment dates, the buyer pays the seller:hard
  43. A sinking fund provision in a bond indenture requires the issuer to:medium
  44. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the analysis of GO bonds versus revenue bonds?hard
  45. A bond with a coupon rate of 5% is trading at 103. This bond is trading at:easy
  46. An industrial development revenue bond (IDRB) is a municipal bond that:hard
  47. A convertible bond with a conversion ratio of 25 is trading at $1,200. The underlying common stock is trading at $44. What is the parity…hard
  48. During the 2008 financial crisis, holders of Lehman Brothers ETNs experienced:hard
  49. Interest rate risk is the risk that:easy
  50. Which of the following is a feature commonly associated with corporate bonds?easy
  51. A city issues bonds backed by the taxing power of the municipality. What type of bond is this?medium
  52. Which U.S. Treasury security has maturities ranging from 2 to 10 years and pays semiannual interest?easy
  53. Which of the following is NOT a government-sponsored enterprise (GSE) that issues agency bonds?medium
  54. Which risk is most associated with Collateralized Mortgage Obligations (CMOs)?medium
  55. Which bond rating represents the highest credit quality?easy
  56. A 6% coupon bond with a current market price of $900 has a current yield of:easy
  57. An investor buys a 5% bond at 95, with 5 years to maturity. Which yield will be highest?medium
  58. All else equal, which bond will have the longest duration?hard
  59. If a bond is called before maturity, which yield calculation becomes most relevant to the investor?medium
  60. Which statement is TRUE regarding zero-coupon bonds?easy
  61. A convertible bond provides the investor with:medium
  62. When a bond transaction settles, the buyer pays which of the following in addition to the market price?medium
  63. U.S. Treasury bills are issued at:easy
  64. A putable bond benefits an investor by allowing them to:medium
  65. Which of the following is most likely to have the highest yield?easy
  66. What is a characteristic of a Treasury STRIPS?medium
  67. A hospital issues a bond payable only from revenues collected for hospital services. This bond is a:medium
  68. A 20-year bond is callable after 10 years. If interest rates fall and the bond is called at year 10, which yield will the investor most…hard
  69. Treasury Inflation-Protected Securities (TIPS) protect investors from which risk?medium
  70. Which issuer's bonds carry an explicit U.S. government guarantee?easy
  71. A bond rated below BBB/Baa is considered:medium
  72. U.S. Treasury bonds are distinguished by which of the following features?medium
  73. An investor wants to minimize the impact of interest rate changes on the value of their bond portfolio. They should primarily consider the…hard
  74. A callable bond will generally offer a ______ yield than a similar noncallable bond.medium
  75. Corporate and municipal bonds calculate accrued interest on which basis?easy
  76. Which agency bond is directly backed by the full faith and credit of the U.S. government?medium
  77. Which statement is TRUE about zero-coupon bonds?medium
  78. A put feature in a bond will tend to:medium
  79. What is the main objective of creating tranches within a Collateralized Mortgage Obligation (CMO)?medium
  80. Which of the following statements about Treasury bills is TRUE?easy
  81. Which of the following secures municipal general obligation bonds?medium
  82. The principal value of a Treasury Inflation-Protected Security (TIPS):medium
  83. An investor converts a bond into common stock. What effect does this have on the issuer?medium
  84. If an issuer’s bond rating is downgraded from A to BBB by S&P, the bond is now considered:hard
  85. Which feature distinguishes Treasury STRIPS from T-notes and T-bonds?medium
  86. Which investor concern is most significant when holding a CMO in a falling interest rate environment?hard
  87. The main source of repayment for a municipal revenue bond is:medium
  88. What is the formula for a bond's current yield?easy
  89. Which security pays interest semiannually and matures in 2–10 years?medium
  90. A bond purchased at a premium is called early. The investor’s realized yield will most likely be:hard
  91. Investors are most likely to exercise the put option on a bond when:medium
  92. If interest rates increase sharply, which bond will experience the largest percentage price decline?hard
  93. Why do convertible bonds typically offer lower yields than comparable non-convertible bonds?medium
  94. Which agency is a major provider of bond credit ratings?easy
  95. An investor purchases a corporate bond in the secondary market. Which entity is responsible for making interest payments to the bondholder?easy
  96. Which type of municipal bond is backed by the full faith and credit of the issuing municipality, including its taxing power?easy
  97. Which Treasury security is always issued at a discount and does not pay periodic interest?easy
  98. Which of the following is a government-sponsored enterprise, and its securities are NOT fully backed by the U.S. government?easy
  99. Which of the following Moody’s ratings indicate the highest credit quality?easy
  100. A bond with a $1,000 par value and a 6% coupon is selling for $1,050. What is its current yield?easy
  101. Which statement is TRUE of zero-coupon bonds?easy
  102. A convertible bond provides the bondholder the right to:easy
  103. Which U.S. Treasury security represents the principal or interest components of a Treasury bond separated for individual resale?easy
  104. What feature allows a bond issuer to redeem the bonds before maturity?easy
  105. What protection do Treasury Inflation-Protected Securities (TIPS) offer investors?easy
  106. How is accrued interest on a corporate bond calculated for a regular-way trade?easy
  107. What is a collateralized mortgage obligation (CMO)?easy
  108. Which of the following most accurately describes the primary risk associated with investment-grade corporate bonds?medium
  109. A city issues a bond to finance the construction of a toll bridge, with principal and interest payable solely from toll collections. What…medium
  110. Which of the following is TRUE of both Treasury notes and Treasury bonds?medium
  111. A 5% bond matures in 10 years and is selling for 92. What does the yield to maturity (YTM) indicate as compared to current yield?medium
  112. Which statement about the Government National Mortgage Association (GNMA) is correct?medium
  113. What does duration measure in relation to a bond?medium
  114. What is one benefit of investing in Treasury STRIPS?medium
  115. A bond is structured so that the investor can force the issuer to redeem early at predetermined dates. This feature is known as:medium
  116. Which is a disadvantage of zero-coupon bonds?medium
  117. CMOs are structured with tranches to:medium
  118. A bond with a rating of BBB by S&P would be considered:medium
  119. When a T-note is traded between coupon dates, how is accrued interest calculated?medium
  120. If a callable bond is trading at a premium, which yield is the lowest?medium
  121. A convertible bond's conversion ratio is 25. If the issuer's stock trades at $40, what is the parity price of the bond?medium
  122. Interest on municipal bonds is generally exempt from:medium
  123. A 26-week Treasury bill has which of the following features?medium
  124. Which agency security is fully backed by the U.S. government?medium
  125. If a bond is purchased at par, which is TRUE regarding its yields?medium
  126. Why would an issuer call its outstanding bonds before maturity?medium
  127. Which of the following S&P ratings is considered below investment grade?medium
  128. Interest paid by Treasury securities is subject to which tax treatments?medium
  129. A bond with a $1,000 face value and an 8% coupon is selling for $900. What is its current yield?medium
  130. If two bonds have the same maturity but different coupons, the bond with the lower coupon will:medium
  131. An investor most likely purchases a putable bond to:medium
  132. A zero-coupon bond offers which of the following advantages to investors planning for a future event such as college funding?medium
  133. An investor selects a planned amortization class (PAC) tranche in a CMO primarily to:medium
  134. A Fannie Mae bond is classified as a(n):medium
  135. If a Treasury bond is quoted at 104.16, what is the dollar price?hard
  136. Which CMO tranche is most exposed to prepayment risk?hard
  137. A municipal bond downgrade from A to BBB would most likely result in:hard
  138. A municipal revenue bond is backed by:hard
  139. If interest rates fall sharply, which bond feature most likely disadvantages investors?hard
  140. A 7% bond maturing in 12 years is priced at 94. What best describes its yield relationships?hard
  141. Which bond type has the highest duration, assuming equal maturities?hard
  142. A 6% corporate bond makes interest payments on Feb 1 and Aug 1. If a customer buys the bond on May 10, how much accrued interest do they…hard
  143. A convertible bond is trading above parity. What does this mean for arbitrageurs?hard
  144. A major difference between GO and revenue municipal bonds is:hard
  145. A 20-year 6% bond is callable in 10 years at 105 and is trading at 108. Which yield is the lowest?hard
  146. A corporation issues a 10-year bond with a 5% coupon, payable semiannually. Which of the following best describes this security?easy
  147. Which municipal bond is primarily backed by the taxing power of the issuer?easy
  148. Which U.S. Treasury security is always issued at a discount and matures in one year or less?easy
  149. A bond rated 'BBB' by Standard & Poor's is considered:easy
  150. An investor buys a $1,000 par 6% corporate bond at par. What is the current yield?easy
  151. Which of the following is an example of a U.S. government agency bond?easy
  152. Which characteristic applies to a zero-coupon bond?easy
  153. A convertible bond allows the holder to:easy
  154. Accrued interest on most corporate bonds is calculated based on:easy
  155. Which of the following best describes a callable bond?easy
  156. The principal value of a TIPS bond:easy
  157. What does duration measure with respect to a bond?easy
  158. A city issues a bond to build a new toll bridge. Debt service will be paid solely from the tolls collected. This bond is classified as a:medium
  159. Which statement is TRUE regarding U.S. Treasury notes?medium
  160. Collateralized Mortgage Obligations (CMOs) are most accurately described as:medium
  161. If interest rates decline sharply, an issuer is MOST likely to:medium
  162. Which of the following best describes a non-investment grade bond?medium
  163. An investor buys a 5% coupon bond for $950. If held to maturity, what will be true about the yield to maturity (YTM)?medium
  164. A $1,000 par bond with a 4% coupon is currently trading at $800. What is its current yield?medium
  165. Treasury bonds have which of the following characteristics?medium
  166. Interest received from most municipal bonds is:medium
  167. A bond is purchased at a premium and is called at the first call date. Compared to the yield to maturity, the yield to call will be:medium
  168. Which agency bond is backed by the full faith and credit of the U.S. government?medium
  169. Which feature distinguishes CMOs from traditional mortgage-backed securities?medium
  170. A Treasury note trade settles on Monday, May 10. For accrued interest, what day count convention is used?medium
  171. What is a primary benefit to an issuer of convertible bonds?medium
  172. Which bond would have the highest duration?medium
  173. Convexity is best described as:medium
  174. Which of the following statements is TRUE about Treasury Inflation-Protected Securities (TIPS)?medium
  175. A zero-coupon bond is most suitable for which type of investor?medium
  176. If an issuer’s bond rating is downgraded from 'A' to 'BBB', what is the likely impact?medium
  177. Which risk is typically higher in CMOs than traditional bonds?medium
  178. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Treasury bills?medium
  179. A 6% coupon bond is trading at $1,100. What is the current yield?medium
  180. Which bond will be MOST sensitive to interest rate changes?medium
  181. Which municipal bond type relies primarily on specific project revenues to pay debt service?medium
  182. What tax issue is unique to zero-coupon bonds?medium
  183. An investor owns a convertible bond with a conversion price of $25. If the bond's par value is $1,000, how many shares can be acquired upon…hard
  184. Which tranche in a CMO structure is MOST subject to prepayment risk?hard
  185. If a municipal issuer’s GO bond rating is downgraded, which effect is most likely?hard
  186. A 20-year, 7% coupon bond is purchased at 85. Which of the following is TRUE?hard
  187. When is a bondholder most likely to have a callable bond redeemed by the issuer?hard
  188. How is accrued interest paid to the seller of a corporate bond?hard
  189. A callable bond purchased at a premium is called at the first opportunity. What effect does this have on the investor’s return?hard
  190. A support (companion) tranche in a CMO is MOST exposed to:hard
  191. As coupon rates decrease and maturity increases, what happens to duration?hard
  192. Which statement is TRUE about STRIPS?hard
  193. A bond with a 'C' rating is considered:hard
  194. All of the following are advantages of U.S. Treasury bonds EXCEPT:hard
  195. Which of the following statements best describes a feature of corporate bonds compared to government bonds?easy
  196. A city issues a bond backed by the full faith and credit of the municipality. What type of bond is this?easy
  197. Which U.S. Treasury security is issued at a discount and does not pay periodic interest, but matures at face value?medium
  198. A $1,000 face value bond with a 6% coupon is currently selling for $950. What is the bond’s current yield?medium
  199. Which risk is most significant for investors in mortgage-backed securities such as CMOs?medium
  200. If interest rates fall, which bondholder is most likely to have their bond called before maturity?medium
  201. A client wants to minimize default risk when investing in agency bonds. Which of the following agency securities is NOT backed by the full…hard
  202. If a bond issuer defaults on payment and does not pay interest or principal when due, the investor suffers from which risk?easy
  203. A client holds a long-term bond. If interest rates rise, the price of the bond is likely to:easy
  204. A municipal bond’s rating is downgraded due to the city’s deteriorating financial condition. What risk has increased for the bondholder?medium
  205. A bond investor is concerned that rising rates will make their existing bonds less attractive, leading to price declines. This describes…medium
  206. A coupon bond trades at a higher yield than comparable Treasury bonds. What risk premium does this higher yield usually compensate for?medium
  207. A bond trader is concerned about volatility in the prices of long-term bonds. Which risk is most relevant to her concern?medium
  208. A bond with a BB rating is yielding significantly more than a government bond of similar maturity. What is the most likely reason?hard
  209. A pension fund has substantial investments in long-duration bonds. Which scenario creates the greatest concern about interest rate risk?hard
  210. A bondholder is worried that a company may not make its interest or principal payments as promised. This concern is best described as:easy
  211. Which risk is most likely to negatively impact the value of a long-term bond if interest rates rise?easy
  212. A bond has a par value of $1,000, a coupon rate of 6%, and is currently trading at $900. What is its current yield?easy
  213. A bond purchased at a discount will have which relationship among its yields?hard
  214. Compared to yield to maturity, yield to call on a premium bond will typically be:hard
  215. A stock pays an annual dividend of $2.40 per share and is currently trading at $60. What is the dividend yield?easy
  216. An investor purchases a corporate bond at a premium. How does the premium affect the investor's cost basis over time?hard
  217. When a bond is sold between interest payment dates, the buyer pays the seller:medium
  218. An investor in the 32% federal tax bracket is comparing a municipal bond yielding 3.5% to a corporate bond. What taxable-equivalent yield…hard
  219. Which of the following is a primary benefit of investing in municipal bonds?easy
  220. Which statement best describes Treasury bills (T-bills)?medium
  221. Treasury Inflation-Protected Securities (TIPS) adjust which component for inflation?medium
  222. Which securities are regulated by the Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board (MSRB)?easy
  223. Which characteristic is unique to Treasury bills (T-bills) compared to Treasury notes and bonds?medium
  224. Treasury Inflation-Protected Securities (TIPS) offer which unique feature?medium
  225. For whom are the interest payments from municipal bonds generally tax-free at the federal level?hard
  226. A client wants to hold tax-free municipal bonds. In which type of account can this be accomplished?medium
  227. A client wants to buy Treasury Inflation-Protected Securities (TIPS). In which account type can these be held?medium
  228. Which statement about municipal bonds is TRUE?medium
  229. Which market participant is subject to MSRB rules but not to SEC registration as a dealer?hard
  230. Which is a unique feature of Treasury Inflation-Protected Securities (TIPS)?hard
  231. Municipal bonds are typically exempt from:easy
  232. A municipal securities dealer agrees to a private arrangement with another dealer to manipulate bond prices. Under MSRB rules, this is:medium
  233. A dealer consistently posts quotes for municipal bonds at artificially high prices to attract sellers, then buys at lower prices. This…medium
  234. A dealer colludes with others to fix bids for a municipal bond underwriting. This activity is:hard
  235. A municipal securities dealer manipulates muni bond prices to create the illusion of active trading. Which authority regulates and enforces…medium
  236. Which system is used by broker-dealers to report municipal securities trades?medium
  237. TRACE is the system for reporting trades in which type of securities?medium
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