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Investment Companies & Packaged Products: 308 free SIE practice questions

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  1. A market maker is best described as a dealer that:medium
  2. Under the Investment Company Act of 1940, which of the following is a type of registered investment company?medium
  3. Which type of investment vehicle is regulated by the Investment Company Act of 1940?easy
  4. A pension fund making large trades in the market is best described as which type of market participant?easy
  5. Which statement correctly describes U.S. Treasury bills (T-bills)?easy
  6. A registered representative is helping a client build a portfolio. What principle requires the rep to make only recommendations that are…medium
  7. Which is a characteristic of a unit investment trust (UIT) under the Investment Company Act of 1940?medium
  8. What function does a market maker perform on a securities exchange?medium
  9. Before selling shares, what must a mutual fund provide to investors under the Investment Company Act of 1940?medium
  10. Which is true about both U.S. Treasury notes (T-notes) and Treasury bonds (T-bonds)?medium
  11. A closed-end fund differs from a mutual fund in which key way?hard
  12. MSRB Rule G-37 restricts municipal bond dealers from engaging in business with issuers following what action?hard
  13. What is the minimum percentage of disinterested directors required by the Investment Company Act of 1940 for an investment company’s board?hard
  14. A registered representative taking orders and providing investment advice to customers is acting as which of the following?easy
  15. A mutual fund is most directly regulated by which of the following laws?easy
  16. A registered representative recommends a high-risk product to a conservative investor. Which rule is most likely violated?medium
  17. A unit investment trust (UIT) differs from a mutual fund because a UIT:medium
  18. Which of these is true regarding shares of a closed-end investment company?medium
  19. Which investment product is regulated by the Investment Company Act of 1940?easy
  20. A broker recommends high-yield bonds to a conservative investor. Which rule does this potentially violate?medium
  21. Which investment company type issues redeemable shares and has a fixed portfolio?medium
  22. Which feature is unique to Unit Investment Trusts (UITs) compared to mutual funds and closed-end funds?hard
  23. A customer wants to invest in a professionally managed, diversified portfolio with no sales charges on purchases or redemptions. Which…medium
  24. A registered representative recommends a speculative small-cap stock to a risk-averse retiree. Which principle is most likely violated?medium
  25. Which feature distinguishes a Unit Investment Trust (UIT) from mutual funds and closed-end funds?hard
  26. A mutual fund is regulated primarily by which federal law?easy
  27. A registered representative must always consider which factor when recommending investments?easy
  28. Closed-end funds differ from mutual funds in that closed-end funds:medium
  29. Which feature is unique to unit investment trusts (UITs)?medium
  30. An investment company is formed to invest in stocks and is offering its own shares to the public. What must it do under the Investment…hard
  31. A registered representative recommends a high-risk leveraged ETF to a retired client with low risk tolerance. This recommendation is most…medium
  32. Which of the following investment products is regulated under the Investment Company Act of 1940?medium
  33. How does an open-end mutual fund differ from a closed-end fund?easy
  34. A mutual fund has total assets of $500 million, total liabilities of $20 million, and 20 million shares outstanding. What is the NAV per…medium
  35. An investor making a large lump-sum investment in a mutual fund would MOST likely benefit from purchasing:medium
  36. A mutual fund has breakpoints at $25,000, $50,000, $100,000, and $250,000. An investor wants to invest $48,000. Their registered…medium
  37. Rights of accumulation (ROA) allow a mutual fund investor to:medium
  38. 12b-1 fees are charges that a mutual fund uses to cover:easy
  39. Which of the following is a characteristic of a Unit Investment Trust (UIT)?medium
  40. The separate account of a variable annuity is:medium
  41. An investor who withdraws funds from a variable annuity during the surrender period will typically face:easy
  42. How are withdrawals from a non-qualified variable annuity taxed?medium
  43. When must a mutual fund prospectus be delivered to an investor?easy
  44. An investor signs a letter of intent (LOI) to invest $100,000 over 13 months to receive a breakpoint discount. After 13 months, only…hard
  45. If a variable annuity owner dies during the accumulation phase, the beneficiary typically receives:medium
  46. A mutual fund's expense ratio includes all of the following EXCEPT:easy
  47. A closed-end fund has a NAV of $25 per share but is trading at $22 on the exchange. The fund is trading at:hard
  48. When a variable annuity is annuitized, the payout amount depends on:hard
  49. An investor redeems shares of an open-end mutual fund. The redemption price is based on:easy
  50. Variable annuities are generally NOT suitable for which type of account?medium
  51. A money market mutual fund invests primarily in:easy
  52. A mutual fund exchange privilege allows an investor to:medium
  53. When a UIT reaches its termination date, what happens to unitholders?hard
  54. Mortality and expense (M&E) risk charges in a variable annuity compensate the insurance company for:hard
  55. When a mutual fund investor elects automatic reinvestment of dividends and capital gains distributions:easy
  56. Under FINRA rules, the maximum sales charge for a mutual fund is:medium
  57. A Section 1035 exchange allows an annuity owner to:hard
  58. A Section 529 plan is a tax-advantaged savings plan designed to:easy
  59. Contributions to a 529 plan are made with:medium
  60. A grandparent wants to contribute to a grandchild's 529 plan. Under the special gift tax provision, the grandparent can contribute up to…hard
  61. Who maintains control over a 529 plan account?medium
  62. An ABLE (Achieving a Better Life Experience) account is designed for individuals who:medium
  63. What is the difference between a 529 prepaid tuition plan and a 529 savings plan?medium
  64. Which statement about ABLE account contributions is TRUE?hard
  65. If funds are withdrawn from a 529 plan for non-qualified expenses, what is the tax consequence?easy
  66. In a limited partnership, the limited partners' liability is:easy
  67. Direct Participation Programs (DPPs) offer the primary tax advantage of:medium
  68. A major disadvantage of investing in a Direct Participation Program (DPP) is:medium
  69. The general partner in a limited partnership is responsible for:easy
  70. Which of the following is a common type of Direct Participation Program?medium
  71. Under IRS passive activity loss rules, losses from a limited partnership can generally only be used to offset:hard
  72. A Tenant-in-Common (TIC) 1031 exchange allows an investor to:hard
  73. Before investing in a DPP, an investor must complete a subscription agreement that includes:medium
  74. A Real Estate Investment Trust (REIT) allows investors to:easy
  75. What is the primary difference between an equity REIT and a mortgage REIT?medium
  76. To qualify for special tax treatment, a REIT must distribute at least what percentage of its taxable income to shareholders?easy
  77. Which statement about non-traded REITs is TRUE?medium
  78. REIT dividends are typically taxed as:hard
  79. To qualify as a REIT, a company must meet all of the following requirements EXCEPT:hard
  80. Rising interest rates generally have what effect on REIT prices?medium
  81. One advantage of investing in a publicly traded REIT compared to direct real estate ownership is:easy
  82. Hedge funds are typically available only to:easy
  83. A hedge fund lock-up period refers to:medium
  84. The traditional hedge fund fee structure known as '2 and 20' refers to:medium
  85. Which of the following strategies is commonly used by hedge funds but NOT typically available to mutual funds?hard
  86. Compared to mutual funds, hedge funds are:medium
  87. Hedge fund minimum investments are typically:easy
  88. Which of the following is NOT a typical risk associated with hedge fund investing?hard
  89. An Exchange-Traded Fund (ETF) shares characteristics of both mutual funds and stocks because it:easy
  90. The creation and redemption mechanism of ETFs involves:hard
  91. Tracking error in an ETF refers to:medium
  92. ETFs are generally more tax-efficient than mutual funds because:medium
  93. Which of the following is an advantage ETFs have over traditional open-end mutual funds?easy
  94. A 2x leveraged ETF seeks to provide:hard
  95. If an ETF's market price exceeds its intraday NAV (iNAV), the ETF is trading at:medium
  96. Which of the following is an example of systematic (market) risk?easy
  97. Unsystematic risk can be reduced by:easy
  98. Political risk is BEST described as:medium
  99. All of the following are types of systematic risk EXCEPT:hard
  100. Which portfolio is MOST effectively diversified to reduce unsystematic risk?hard
  101. Which of the following best describes the net asset value (NAV) of an open-end mutual fund?easy
  102. A mutual fund's 12b-1 fee is primarily used to cover:easy
  103. An investor making a large purchase in a mutual fund receives a reduced sales charge. This benefit is known as:easy
  104. A client signs a Letter of Intent (LOI) with a mutual fund family. What is the primary benefit of an LOI?easy
  105. How are closed-end fund shares typically bought and sold by investors?easy
  106. Which of the following is a feature of most Exchange-Traded Funds (ETFs)?easy
  107. A key characteristic of a Unit Investment Trust (UIT) is that it:easy
  108. To maintain its special tax status, a Real Estate Investment Trust (REIT) must distribute at least what percentage of its taxable income to…easy
  109. Class B mutual fund shares generally have which of the following features?easy
  110. An investor wishes to trade a basket of securities in real time with low expenses. Which product is most suitable?easy
  111. A primary benefit of investing in a 529 plan is:easy
  112. At the end of a Unit Investment Trust's (UIT) life, investors typically:easy
  113. A variable annuity differs from a fixed annuity because its value is primarily based on:easy
  114. Which of the following is NOT a type of REIT?easy
  115. A major difference between a hedge fund and a mutual fund is that hedge funds:easy
  116. Which statement is true of private equity funds?easy
  117. An investor notices that an ETF is trading at a price slightly higher than its net asset value (NAV). What does this indicate?medium
  118. Which statement best describes how open-end mutual funds are priced for purchases and redemptions?medium
  119. A client is eligible for a breakpoint but is not informed by their representative. This is considered:medium
  120. An investor has previously purchased $30,000 in a mutual fund family and wants to invest $20,000 more to reach a $50,000 breakpoint. Which…medium
  121. What happens if a closed-end investment company wants to raise more capital after its initial public offering (IPO)?medium
  122. A distinguishing feature of ETFs, compared to mutual funds, is that ETFs:medium
  123. Which statement best describes the management of a Unit Investment Trust (UIT)?medium
  124. Which of the following best describes a hybrid REIT?medium
  125. Compared to mutual funds, hedge funds are generally:medium
  126. Which of the following is a unique risk of variable annuities compared to fixed annuities?medium
  127. Which is NOT a feature of 529 college savings plans?medium
  128. An open-end mutual fund must stand ready to:medium
  129. Which one is a unique risk associated with exchange-traded funds (ETFs) compared to mutual funds?medium
  130. A typical characteristic of private equity funds is that they:medium
  131. A client is considering a variable annuity mainly to control investment options. Which feature aligns with this goal?medium
  132. Compared to mutual funds, UITs differ in that they:medium
  133. Which statement about REITs is correct?medium
  134. A client wants to minimize ongoing expenses and is planning a large investment in a mutual fund to use the available breakpoint. Which…medium
  135. Shares of a closed-end fund may trade at a discount to NAV for which primary reason?medium
  136. Which practice is common for hedge funds but not for mutual funds?medium
  137. What is an advantage of ETFs over traditional mutual funds?medium
  138. An investor in a UIT can expect which of the following at termination?medium
  139. A mortgage REIT primarily earns income from:medium
  140. Class C mutual fund shares are typically most appropriate for:medium
  141. The price that an investor pays for a closed-end fund share is usually:medium
  142. Which investor is generally eligible to purchase hedge funds?medium
  143. A unique tax advantage of ETFs over open-end mutual funds is that ETFs:medium
  144. A disadvantage of UITs compared to mutual funds is that UITs:medium
  145. If a REIT distributes less than 90% of its taxable income to shareholders, the REIT:medium
  146. A client plans to invest $25,000 in a mutual fund and wants to maximize long-term returns while minimizing ongoing expenses and sales…hard
  147. An authorized participant in the ETF creation/redemption process primarily helps:hard
  148. Which of the following best describes the liquidity risk of hedge funds?hard
  149. Upon purchasing units of a UIT, an investor should expect that:hard
  150. A key difference between private equity funds and public mutual funds is that private equity funds:hard
  151. After a closed-end fund’s IPO, what is the primary source of liquidity for investors?hard
  152. Which factor most limits significant price deviations between an ETF's market price and its net asset value?hard
  153. A key risk associated with variable annuities, but not with fixed annuities, is:hard
  154. If a 529 plan's funds are used for non-qualified expenses, the account owner may be subject to:hard
  155. Which of the following is true of an equity REIT?hard
  156. Why are hedge funds subject to less disclosure and fewer regulations than mutual funds?hard
  157. Which of the following most accurately describes the pricing of shares in an open-end mutual fund?easy
  158. A mutual fund charges a front-end sales load. What does this mean for investors?easy
  159. An investor wants to invest $55,000 in a mutual fund with breakpoints. What is the purpose of breakpoints?easy
  160. Which fee is specifically designated for the marketing and distribution of mutual fund shares?easy
  161. An investor wants to qualify for a mutual fund breakpoint by signing a Letter of Intent (LOI). Which is TRUE?easy
  162. Rights of Accumulation (ROA) in mutual funds allow investors to:easy
  163. Unlike open-end funds, closed-end fund shares are:easy
  164. A unique feature of exchange-traded funds (ETFs) compared to mutual funds is that ETFs:easy
  165. All of the following are characteristics of unit investment trusts (UITs) EXCEPT:easy
  166. A requirement for a company to qualify as a REIT is that it must:easy
  167. Investors in variable annuities bear which of the following risks?easy
  168. Which of the following statements about 529 college savings plans is TRUE?easy
  169. Which is a typical characteristic of hedge funds?easy
  170. Private equity funds generally:easy
  171. A mutual fund has $150 million in assets, $10 million in liabilities, and 7 million shares outstanding. What is the NAV per share?medium
  172. If an investor purchases $48,000 of a mutual fund, and the breakpoint for a lower sales charge is $50,000, which action can help qualify…medium
  173. A mutual fund charges a 0.40% 12b-1 fee. Which of the following best describes this charge?medium
  174. A client redeems shares in an open-end mutual fund. When is the price set for the redemption?medium
  175. Which of the following is a true statement about ETF share creation and redemption?medium
  176. An investor trades ETF shares during market hours. How does this compare to open-end mutual funds?medium
  177. Why might an investor choose an index ETF over an actively managed mutual fund?medium
  178. A distinguishing characteristic of a unit investment trust (UIT) compared to a mutual fund is that a UIT:medium
  179. Upon maturity, a unit investment trust (UIT) typically:medium
  180. Which of the following best describes an equity REIT?medium
  181. A hybrid REIT combines the features of which two types of REITs?medium
  182. Which is NOT a feature of most publicly traded REITs?medium
  183. Which investor benefit is provided by mutual fund automatic reinvestment of dividends?medium
  184. A key risk of variable annuities compared to fixed annuities is:medium
  185. Which is a qualified expense for a 529 savings plan distribution?medium
  186. A typical hedge fund fee structure is:medium
  187. Private equity funds are best suited for which type of investor?medium
  188. Closed-end funds may trade at a premium or discount to NAV because:medium
  189. How does the number of outstanding shares in a closed-end fund generally change over time?medium
  190. A mutual fund prospectus must disclose all of the following EXCEPT:medium
  191. Which investor is most likely to benefit from an ETF’s intraday liquidity?medium
  192. A mutual fund family offers exchange privileges. This means an investor can:medium
  193. An investor interested in income wants to compare equity REITs and mortgage REITs. Which statement is most accurate?hard
  194. A REIT is considering reducing its annual distribution to 80% of taxable income. What would be the potential consequence?hard
  195. Which is a defining feature of a mutual fund with a back-end sales load (Class B share)?hard
  196. A mutual fund may suspend redemptions under which circumstance?hard
  197. When purchasing mutual fund Class C shares, what is the typical cost structure?hard
  198. Which scenario best illustrates the risk associated with a UIT’s fixed portfolio?hard
  199. Which of the following best explains why ETFs experience lower capital gains distributions than mutual funds?hard
  200. A withdrawal from a 529 college savings plan used for non-qualified expenses will result in:hard
  201. Which regulatory feature applies to most hedge funds?hard
  202. A primary risk associated with private equity investing is:hard
  203. Which of the following statements regarding tax treatment of variable annuity earnings is correct?hard
  204. If an investor fails to fulfill an LOI, what happens to the previously reduced sales charges?hard
  205. Which risk is unique to investors in closed-end funds, compared to open-end mutual funds?hard
  206. Which tax characteristic is a major advantage of ETFs over mutual funds?hard
  207. An investor buys shares of an open-end mutual fund at the public offering price (POP). What does the POP generally consist of?easy
  208. Which type of fund typically charges a sales load at the time of purchase?easy
  209. Which of the following can be traded throughout the day on an exchange at market prices?easy
  210. A main characteristic of a Unit Investment Trust (UIT) is that it:easy
  211. For a Real Estate Investment Trust (REIT) to avoid federal taxation on income, it must distribute at least:easy
  212. A 529 plan is most commonly used to fund which of the following?easy
  213. Which share class of mutual funds usually imposes a contingent deferred sales charge (CDSC)?easy
  214. Closed-end funds differ from open-end funds because they:easy
  215. Which characteristic is most associated with hedge funds?easy
  216. Private equity funds primarily invest in:easy
  217. What is a breakpoint in a mutual fund?easy
  218. An investor who plans to invest $45,000 over 13 months in a mutual fund can receive a sales charge reduction immediately by signing a:easy
  219. At the end of a Unit Investment Trust’s life, the investor typically:easy
  220. 12b-1 fees in mutual funds are used to cover:easy
  221. Variable annuities differ from mutual funds in that:easy
  222. Which of the following REITs invests primarily in mortgages and mortgage-backed securities?easy
  223. Which party is primarily involved when ETFs are created or redeemed in large blocks known as 'creation units'?medium
  224. The NAV of an open-end mutual fund changes primarily as a result of:medium
  225. An accredited investor is required for investing in which of the following packaged products?medium
  226. Which feature differentiates a variable annuity’s payout phase from its accumulation phase?medium
  227. Unlike mutual funds, ETFs maintain price alignment with underlying assets primarily through:medium
  228. If a closed-end fund is trading below its NAV, this means:medium
  229. A client wants to minimize upfront sales charges and is willing to pay higher ongoing expenses. Which mutual fund class is most appropriate?medium
  230. ETFs are often considered more tax-efficient than mutual funds due to:medium
  231. When an investor places an order to buy mutual fund shares, the actual price paid is determined by:medium
  232. A key difference between a UIT and a mutual fund is that a UIT:medium
  233. Who maintains control over the assets in a 529 plan?medium
  234. A mutual fund’s expense ratio measures:medium
  235. Mutual fund shareholders typically have the right to:medium
  236. After its initial public offering (IPO), a closed-end fund:medium
  237. A mutual fund is MOST suitable for an investor seeking:medium
  238. Which of the following is a key difference between ETFs and open-end mutual funds?medium
  239. If an investor wishes to redeem units in a UIT prior to termination, they:medium
  240. A typical equity REIT seeks to earn returns for investors by:medium
  241. A major risk of private equity funds for investors is:medium
  242. A primary benefit of ETF intraday trading is:medium
  243. Variable annuities are most suitable for:medium
  244. The main tax benefit of 529 plan distributions used for qualified education expenses is:medium
  245. A closed-end fund trades at a discount to its NAV. Which factor is least likely to explain this discount?hard
  246. Which strategy is most likely to be employed by a hedge fund but not by a mutual fund?hard
  247. A private equity fund’s preferred exit strategy for a portfolio company is usually:hard
  248. Variable annuities typically include which of the following cost structures?hard
  249. A key disadvantage of Class B mutual fund shares compared to Class A shares is:hard
  250. After formation, a UIT portfolio is generally:hard
  251. In order to qualify as a REIT under IRS rules, a company must:hard
  252. Which statement best distinguishes ETF share redemption from mutual fund share redemption?hard
  253. An investor exchanges shares from one mutual fund to another within the same fund family. For tax purposes, this is considered:hard
  254. A closed-end fund may trade at a premium if:hard
  255. If a REIT fails to distribute 90% of its taxable income as dividends, it will:hard
  256. Compared to mutual funds, hedge funds are less likely to:hard
  257. An RR recommends that a client divide investments among several mutual fund families to 'avoid breakpoints.' This practice is:hard
  258. REITs are not considered investment companies under the Investment Company Act of 1940 because:hard
  259. An investor is considering purchasing $100,000 of a Class A mutual fund that charges a front-end sales load, provides breakpoints, and…medium
  260. A change in government policy results in new regulations that negatively impact a company’s industry. This is an example of:easy
  261. Diversification is most effective at reducing which type of risk?easy
  262. Which risk cannot be eliminated through diversification?easy
  263. Which investor faces the highest political/legislative risk?medium
  264. Systematic risk is also referred to as:medium
  265. A new tax law significantly increases the tax rate on capital gains. Which risk does this illustrate?medium
  266. Which of the following is an example of unsystematic risk?medium
  267. A foreign government unexpectedly nationalizes its banks, causing local bond prices to fall. U.S. investors in those bonds face what type…hard
  268. Which best distinguishes systematic from unsystematic risk?hard
  269. A pharmaceutical company's stock price drops sharply after a new law restricts the sale of one of its leading drugs. What risk is this an…medium
  270. Which of the following is considered an unsystematic risk?hard
  271. Under FINRA's suitability rules, a registered representative must have a reasonable basis to believe a recommendation is suitable based on…medium
  272. Under FINRA Rule 2165, a broker-dealer may place a temporary hold on disbursements from a senior investor's account if the firm reasonably…medium
  273. Which of the following is governed by the Investment Company Act of 1940?easy
  274. The Investment Company Act of 1940 defines which of the following as investment companies?hard
  275. A mutual fund must register with the SEC under which law?medium
  276. When does an investor in a mutual fund buy shares?medium
  277. An investor wants intraday pricing and trading privileges not allowed by mutual funds. Which product suits this need?hard
  278. A registered representative must ensure that a recommendation for a client is:easy
  279. Under the Investment Company Act of 1940, which of the following is NOT classified as an investment company?medium
  280. Which type of account is specifically designed to save for qualified educational expenses?medium
  281. A mutual fund account is regulated primarily by which federal law?medium
  282. A customer applies for an options account and reports very limited investment experience. The firm should:hard
  283. The Investment Company Act of 1940 requires mutual funds to:hard
  284. Under the Investment Company Act of 1940, which account type might hold mutual fund shares?medium
  285. When opening a brokerage account, a registered representative's most important requirement is to:hard
  286. A customer applies for an options account. What must the firm consider before approval?medium
  287. An investor opens an account with a mutual fund company. Which law primarily governs the fund's structure?medium
  288. A registered rep recommends only proprietary products to all new accounts without considering customer needs. What standard is the…medium
  289. A customer purchases Class B shares in a mutual fund account. Which fee is MOST likely applied?hard
  290. Which best describes a registered representative's obligation regarding investment recommendations?easy
  291. Which investment vehicle is regulated under the Investment Company Act of 1940?medium
  292. Front-running occurs when a broker-dealer:easy
  293. Recommending frequent mutual fund exchanges solely to generate commissions is known as:medium
  294. A mutual fund portfolio manager trades shares for personal benefit ahead of fund trades. This is a violation of which fiduciary obligation?medium
  295. A registered rep tells a client that an investment is 'guaranteed' to increase in value. This statement is:medium
  296. Which is an example of a prohibited practice relating to custodial accounts?medium
  297. A closed-end fund manager manipulates the share price through coordinated trading with other parties. This is a violation of:medium
  298. A UIT sponsor uses false advertising to promote a new trust series. This would be considered:medium
  299. A broker solicits non-accredited investors for a Regulation D offering after exceeding the permitted number allowed. This is:hard
  300. If a mutual fund advisor gives one group of investors favorable information not disclosed in the prospectus, this could be considered:medium
  301. A mutual fund manager uses nonpublic information to trade for the fund’s benefit before that information is widely available. This practice…hard
  302. A registered representative recommends complex options strategies to a client who has limited investment experience and a low risk…medium
  303. MSRB Rule G-37 (pay-to-play) restricts municipal securities dealers from doing business with a government entity for how long after making…medium
  304. Under MSRB Rule G-37, what is the de minimis exception for political contributions by municipal securities professionals?hard
  305. FINRA Rule 2030 (pay-to-play) applies to which type of business?easy
  306. If a retail communication uses hypothetical illustrations, what must be included?medium
  307. MSRB Rule G-37 requires reporting of political contributions by firms that underwrite:medium
  308. Broker-dealers must report gifts and gratuities over what value per person per year, under FINRA rules?medium
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