🏦LTB
← All Series 79 questions
 Series 79 topic

Underwriting & New Financing: 147 free Series 79 practice questions

Every question links to a full page with the answer and explanation. When you can answer these cold, drill them under time pressure in the free practice app.

  1. What is the first major document filed with the SEC to initiate the IPO process?easy
  2. During an IPO roadshow, a company's CEO presents to institutional investors and mentions that the company expects revenue to grow by 40%…medium
  3. What is the 'cooling-off period' in the context of an IPO?easy
  4. A technology company is conducting its IPO. The preliminary prospectus has a price range of $18-$21 per share. After the roadshow, demand…medium
  5. An investment bank is the lead bookrunner for a $500 million IPO. During the allocation process, the bank gives a disproportionately large…hard
  6. What document is commonly referred to as the 'red herring'?easy
  7. In the context of an IPO, what is the purpose of a 'comfort letter'?medium
  8. A biotech company plans to IPO with a pre-money valuation of $800 million, offering 20 million shares. The company has only two Phase II…hard
  9. What is the typical sequence of events on the pricing date of an IPO?medium
  10. Which entity is primarily responsible for declaring an IPO registration statement effective?easy
  11. Which SEC registration form is typically used by a company conducting its first public offering?easy
  12. To be eligible to use Form S-3 for a primary offering, which of the following conditions must an issuer meet?medium
  13. A company that has been publicly reporting for 18 months but has a public float of only $50 million wants to conduct a primary offering of…medium
  14. Company A is acquiring Company B in a stock-for-stock merger valued at $2 billion. Company A will issue 50 million new shares to Company…hard
  15. What is the primary advantage of using Form S-3 over Form S-1?easy
  16. A well-known seasoned issuer (WKSI) with a market cap of $15 billion files an automatic shelf registration statement on Form S-3. Which of…hard
  17. What information must be included in Part I of a Form S-1 registration statement?medium
  18. An issuer files a registration statement and receives a deficiency letter from the SEC. What does this mean?medium
  19. Under the Securities Act of 1933, when must a final prospectus be delivered to investors?easy
  20. Which of the following is NOT typically required to be disclosed in a prospectus for an IPO?medium
  21. A company's preliminary prospectus states that it will use 60% of IPO proceeds for acquisitions. After the IPO, the company uses those…hard
  22. What is a 'prospectus supplement' used for in connection with a shelf registration?easy
  23. Under Rule 430A, what information may be omitted from a prospectus filed as part of the registration statement?medium
  24. In a firm commitment underwriting, who bears the risk of unsold shares?easy
  25. A small company is conducting a $10 million IPO under a best efforts underwriting arrangement. The underwriter sells only $6 million worth…medium
  26. What distinguishes an all-or-none underwriting from a standard best efforts underwriting?medium
  27. A mini-maxi offering has a minimum of $15 million and a maximum of $30 million. After the offering period, $22 million in subscriptions…hard
  28. What is the 'underwriting spread'?easy
  29. An underwriting agreement contains a 'market out' clause. Under which circumstance would this clause most likely be invoked?hard
  30. Which component of the underwriting spread is paid to broker-dealers who sell shares to their retail clients but are not members of the…medium
  31. What is the primary purpose of the 'agreement among underwriters' (AAU)?medium
  32. What is the primary role of the lead bookrunner in an underwriting syndicate?easy
  33. How does a selling group differ from the underwriting syndicate?medium
  34. A $750 million IPO has three joint bookrunners with economics split 40%/35%/25%. The gross spread is 5.5%. What is the approximate total…hard
  35. What document formalizes the preliminary relationship between an issuer and its lead underwriter before the underwriting agreement is…easy
  36. What is the primary reason an issuer might select multiple joint bookrunners for a large IPO?medium
  37. Under Regulation M, at what price may the lead underwriter enter stabilizing bids in the aftermarket?medium
  38. After an IPO is priced at $20 per share, the lead underwriter oversold the offering by 15% through the overallotment option and the stock…hard
  39. What is a penalty bid in the context of an IPO?easy
  40. Under Regulation M, which of the following activities is NOT permitted during the restricted period for a distribution?medium
  41. What must be disclosed in the prospectus regarding stabilization activities?medium
  42. What is the maximum overallotment option (green shoe) typically permitted in a public offering?easy
  43. An IPO is priced at $25 per share with 10 million shares offered. The underwriters exercise the full 15% overallotment option. How many…medium
  44. After an IPO priced at $30 per share with a 15% overallotment option on 8 million shares, the stock drops to $27. The lead underwriter has…hard
  45. What is a 'reverse green shoe' option?medium
  46. What is the standard lock-up period for company insiders in a typical IPO?easy
  47. Who has the authority to waive or release lock-up agreements early?medium
  48. A company completed its IPO 120 days ago at $35 per share. The stock now trades at $52. The CEO contacts the lead underwriter requesting an…hard
  49. Under Rule 144, what is the holding period for restricted securities of a reporting company before they can be sold?easy
  50. An affiliate of a public company wants to sell shares under Rule 144. The volume limitation restricts sales to the greater of what two…medium
  51. When must Form 144 be filed with the SEC?medium
  52. A venture capital fund received restricted shares of a reporting company through a private placement 8 months ago. The fund is not an…hard
  53. Rule 144A permits the resale of restricted securities to which type of buyer?easy
  54. What is the minimum threshold of securities an institution must own and invest on a discretionary basis to qualify as a qualified…medium
  55. A foreign issuer conducts a $500 million high-yield bond offering using a Rule 144A/Regulation S structure. The bonds are initially placed…hard
  56. What are the two general conditions that must be met for an offering to qualify for the Regulation S safe harbor?medium
  57. Under Regulation S, what is the distribution compliance period for equity securities of a U.S. domestic issuer?medium
  58. Can a U.S. company use Regulation S to sell securities to overseas investors?easy
  59. Under Regulation D Rule 506(b), what is the maximum number of non-accredited investors permitted in a private placement?easy
  60. What is the key difference between Rule 506(b) and Rule 506(c) offerings?medium
  61. Which of the following would constitute acceptable verification of accredited investor status under Rule 506(c)?medium
  62. A startup raises $5 million through a Rule 506(b) offering from 30 accredited investors and 5 non-accredited but sophisticated investors.…hard
  63. Under current SEC rules, what is the income threshold for an individual to qualify as an accredited investor?easy
  64. What is the integration doctrine in the context of Regulation D offerings?medium
  65. What does 'PIPE' stand for in the context of securities offerings?easy
  66. In a traditional PIPE transaction, the issuer typically agrees to file a resale registration statement within what timeframe?medium
  67. A publicly traded company with a stock price of $12 announces a PIPE transaction to sell 5 million shares at $10.20 per share (a 15%…hard
  68. What is a 'registered direct offering' and how does it differ from a traditional PIPE?medium
  69. What is the difference between a primary offering and a secondary offering?easy
  70. A company that has been public for three years with a market cap of $5 billion wants to raise $400 million through a follow-on offering.…medium
  71. A company announces an overnight follow-on offering of 15 million shares priced at $42 per share, a 4.5% discount to the closing price of…hard
  72. What is an 'at-the-market' (ATM) offering?medium
  73. What is the maximum period a shelf registration statement remains effective under Rule 415?easy
  74. Which of the following is an advantage of a shelf registration for the issuer?medium
  75. A company files a universal shelf registration on Form S-3 covering $2 billion of various securities. Eighteen months later, it has…hard
  76. Under the SEC's 'baby shelf' rule, what limitation applies to smaller reporting companies using Form S-3?medium
  77. Under the National Securities Markets Improvement Act of 1996 (NSMIA), which of the following offerings is preempted from state blue sky…medium
  78. A company is conducting a Regulation A+ Tier 2 offering of $50 million. What is the company's blue sky compliance obligation?hard
  79. What is the 'due diligence defense' under Section 11 of the Securities Act?medium
  80. An underwriter is establishing its due diligence defense for a $300 million IPO. Which of the following steps would NOT typically be part…hard
  81. In the context of due diligence, what is a '10b-5 letter'?easy
  82. Under Section 11 of the Securities Act, which of the following parties can be held liable for material misstatements in a registration…medium
  83. An investor purchases 10,000 shares at the $22 IPO price. The stock declines to $14 after it is revealed that the prospectus omitted a…hard
  84. How does Section 12(a)(1) liability differ from Section 11 liability?medium
  85. What is the statute of limitations for claims under Section 11 of the Securities Act?easy
  86. During which period is the quiet period restriction most significant in an IPO?easy
  87. A company planning an IPO gives a presentation at an industry conference two weeks before filing its S-1. The CEO discusses the company's…medium
  88. Under Rule 163A, the safe harbor for pre-filing communications, what conditions must be met for an issuer's communication to be exempt from…hard
  89. After an IPO, what is the research quiet period during which syndicate member analysts are restricted from publishing research on the newly…medium
  90. What is a free writing prospectus (FWP)?easy
  91. Under what circumstances must a free writing prospectus be filed with the SEC?medium
  92. An emerging growth company (EGC) conducting an IPO wants to share a research report written by the lead underwriter's analyst with…hard
  93. What is the primary difference between equity capital markets (ECM) and debt capital markets (DCM)?easy
  94. A company needs to raise $400 million and is deciding between an equity offering and a debt offering. Its stock is currently trading at an…medium
  95. What is an accelerated bookbuild offering?medium
  96. A company issues $500 million of 2.5% convertible senior notes due in 2031 with a conversion price of $150 per share (current stock price…medium
  97. A company issues convertible bonds with a 'make-whole' fundamental change provision. If the company is acquired at a premium, what does…hard
  98. What credit rating generally distinguishes investment-grade bonds from high-yield bonds?easy
  99. During the book-building process for an IPO, what types of orders do institutional investors typically submit?medium
  100. Which type of offering gives existing shareholders transferable rights to buy additional shares, usually at a subscription price below…easy
  101. What distinguishes an IPO from a follow-on offering?easy
  102. In a secondary offering, who receives the proceeds when existing shareholders sell stock?easy
  103. Which offering structure is most likely to be used by a public company that wants flexibility to issue securities over time without…medium
  104. What is the primary role of the lead-left underwriter in an equity offering?easy
  105. Why do underwriters conduct due diligence before an offering?easy
  106. What is the engagement letter in an underwriting mandate?easy
  107. Which document formalizes the underwriters’ commitment to purchase securities from the issuer in a firm commitment offering?medium
  108. What is the comfort letter from the issuer’s independent accountants designed to provide?medium
  109. Which form is commonly used by seasoned eligible issuers for a short-form registered offering that incorporates Exchange Act filings by…easy
  110. Which registration statement is typically used by companies going public for the first time?easy
  111. What is a well-known seasoned issuer, or WKSI, generally permitted to do?easy
  112. What is the waiting period in a registered offering?medium
  113. Why might a company prefer shelf registration for debt issuance?medium
  114. What information are equity investors most directly providing during book building?easy
  115. If an IPO order book is multiple times oversubscribed by high-quality long-only investors, what pricing implication is most likely?easy
  116. What is the main purpose of a roadshow in an IPO?easy
  117. Why might a bookrunner allocate fewer shares to a hedge fund that requested a very large order than to a smaller long-only institution?medium
  118. What does it mean to tighten an IPO price range upward during marketing?medium
  119. What is the underwriting spread in an equity offering?easy
  120. What is the key difference between a syndicate member and a selling group member?easy
  121. Why do issuers use a syndicate instead of one bank in larger offerings?easy
  122. What is the role of the syndicate manager after pricing and before closing?medium
  123. Under Regulation M, what is a stabilizing bid?easy
  124. What is the greenshoe option in an IPO?easy
  125. Why might underwriters deliberately over-allot shares at pricing?easy
  126. What is a lock-up agreement in an IPO?medium
  127. What is the purpose of aftermarket research blackout rules around an offering?medium
  128. Under Rule 144A, a buyer generally must be what type of investor?easy
  129. What is a key feature of Regulation D Rule 506(b)?easy
  130. How does Rule 506(c) differ from Rule 506(b)?easy
  131. What is Regulation S designed to address?medium
  132. Why are registration rights often negotiated in a private placement?medium
  133. What is the main purpose of an indenture in a bond offering?easy
  134. Why might an issuer prefer fixed-rate debt over floating-rate debt?easy
  135. What does optional redemption, or a call feature, give the issuer?easy
  136. What is the function of a trustee in a public debt offering?medium
  137. Why are rating agency presentations important in many debt deals?medium
  138. What is the key difference between a general obligation bond and a revenue bond?easy
  139. Which regulator primarily writes rules for municipal securities dealers?easy
  140. What is an official statement in a municipal offering?easy
  141. Why do investors often focus on debt service coverage in revenue bond deals?medium
  142. What is a conduit municipal financing?medium
  143. In a firm commitment underwriting, who bears the risk that not all offered securities can be sold to investors at the public offering price?easy
  144. In a best efforts offering, what does the underwriter agree to do?easy
  145. Which structure generally provides an issuer more certainty of proceeds at closing?easy
  146. Why might a smaller or riskier issuer use a best efforts offering?medium
  147. If an issuer insists on full proceeds certainty, which structure is the banker most likely to recommend, all else equal?medium
More Series 79 topics